In a relativistic and local theory, if we have two space-like separated events E1E_{1} and E2E_{2} plus any physical state the theory associates to systems in the past light-cone of E1E_{1} , called Ω1\Omega_{1} , then one has that: P(E1E2,Ω1)=P(E1Ω1)P(E_{1} | E_{2}, \Omega_{1}) = P(E_{1} | \Omega_{1}) Let's assume that the two events are perfectly correlated or anti-correlated with one another, then this means that the first term can only assume two values: P(E1E2,Ω1)=(1or0)P(E_{1} | E_{2}, \Omega_{1}) = (1\quad or \quad 0) but then, if locality holds, this also means that: P(E1Ω1)=(1or0)P(E_{1} | \Omega_{1}) = (1\quad or \quad 0) To me, this second requirement amounts to say that the theory can determine with certainty whether or not E1E_{1} is going to happen based on the physical state Ω1\Omega_{1} . This seems to suggest that if one has a pair of perfectly correlated or anti-correlated events in a local theory, they each must be separately pre-determined by the physical state in their respective past light-cone. Is this conclusion true or is this reasoning flawed?