By putting the values of at and point we get, \frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(-V_1-E)\psi \tag{1} and \frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(-V_2-E)\psi \tag{2} Now since we can say that the frequency of is greater at point . since . And that is why as the particle goes from to its frequency goes up. But here, the correct answer is the 3rd one, where the frequency goes up but the amplitude is becoming less. I cant find any reason why that would happen and if my argument correct?
Qualitative Nature of the wave function under a certain potential
Baibhab Bose

