By putting the values of V(x)V(x) at aa and point bb we get, \frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(-V_1-E)\psi \tag{1} and \frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(-V_2-E)\psi \tag{2} Now since E>0E >0 we can say that the frequency of ψ(x)\psi(x) is greater at point bb . since V1E<V2E |-V_1-E|<|-V_2-E| . And that is why as the particle goes from aa to bb its frequency goes up. But here, the correct answer is the 3rd one, where the frequency goes up but the amplitude is becoming less. I cant find any reason why that would happen and if my argument correct?